Canopus Report post Posted November 3, 2015 A Year 7 student with AS raised this question during an RE lesson. Why are there hundreds of sects of Christianity that use the New Testament but Judaism is the only religion that uses just the Old Testament? Nobody could intelligently answer the question. Any ideas? I came up with a bold explanation but I'm a bit reluctant to repeat it here. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Mihaela Report post Posted November 6, 2015 May I be so bold as to suggest that it just might be because Jesus doesn't get a mention in the OT? Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Canopus Report post Posted November 6, 2015 May I be so bold as to suggest that it just might be because Jesus doesn't get a mention in the OT? You are distantly thinking along the same lines as I am. There are two religions (not counting small cults founded after 1800) which feature Jesus, one of which currently or previously has depicted Jesus in different ways. The New Testament as a single compilation did not exist until the 4th century after the Council of Nicea in 325. It is believed that Athanasius compiled the New Testament in 367 and it was commercially available around 390. Prior to the Council of Nicea, Christians used many books and documents in addition to the Old Testament and only a small fraction of them made it into the New Testament. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
